在一个游戏中,玩家投掷一枚各个面分别标有 1 到 6 的均匀骰子。如果玩家掷出 6,他将投掷第二次,在这种情况下,他的得分是 6 与第二次掷出数字之差的绝对值。否则,他的得分就是第一次掷出的数字。设玩家的得分为 XX。

  1. (i)

    证明 P(X=1)=736\mathrm{P}(X = 1) = \tfrac{7}{36} 并用表格列出 XX 的概率分布。

  2. (ii)

    求 E(X)\mathrm{E}(X) 的精确值。

  3. (iii)

    林先生玩这个游戏 4 次。

    求他获得 5 分的次数不超过 2 次的概率。

  4. (iv)

    求他在玩的 4 局游戏中总得分小于 2 的概率。

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完整解法

11(i)

1. Calculate the probability that the score is 1.

The score is 1 in two mutually exclusive cases: getting a 1 on the first toss, or getting a 6 on the first toss followed by a 5 on the second toss (since ∣6−5∣=1|6 - 5| = 1).
P(X=1)=P(1st toss is 1)+P(1st toss is 6 and 2nd toss is 5)\mathrm{P}(X=1) = \mathrm{P}(\text{1st toss is } 1) + \mathrm{P}(\text{1st toss is } 6 \text{ and 2nd toss is } 5)
P(X=1)=16+(16×16)\mathrm{P}(X=1) = \frac{1}{6} + \left(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6}\right)
P(X=1)=636+136=736 (shown)\mathrm{P}(X=1) = \frac{6}{36} + \frac{1}{36} = \frac{7}{36} \text{ (shown)}

2. Determine the probabilities for all other possible values of $X$.

The possible values of XX are 0,1,2,3,4,50, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
For x∈{2,3,4,5}x \in \{2, 3, 4, 5\}, the calculation is identical to X=1X=1 (getting xx on the first toss, or getting 6 then 6−x6-x):
P(X=x)=16+(16×16)=736\mathrm{P}(X=x) = \frac{1}{6} + \left(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6}\right) = \frac{7}{36}
For X=0X=0, the only way is to get a 6 on the first toss and a 6 on the second toss (since ∣6−6∣=0|6 - 6| = 0):
P(X=0)=P(1st toss 6)×P(2nd toss 6)=16×16=136\mathrm{P}(X=0) = \mathrm{P}(\text{1st toss } 6) \times \mathrm{P}(\text{2nd toss } 6) = \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} = \frac{1}{36}

3. Tabulate the probability distribution of $X$.

xx001122334455
P(X=x)\mathrm{P}(X=x)136\frac{1}{36}736\frac{7}{36}736\frac{7}{36}736\frac{7}{36}736\frac{7}{36}736\frac{7}{36}
答案
xx001122334455
P(X=x)\mathrm{P}(X=x)136\frac{1}{36}736\frac{7}{36}736\frac{7}{36}736\frac{7}{36}736\frac{7}{36}736\frac{7}{36}

11(ii)

1. Retrieve the probability distribution of $X$ from part (i).

Based on the rules of the game:
P(X=0)=P(6 then 6)=16×16=136\mathrm{P}(X=0) = \mathrm{P}(6 \text{ then } 6) = \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} = \frac{1}{36}
For x∈{1,2,3,4,5}x \in \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\}:
P(X=x)=P(first toss is x)+P(first toss is 6 and ∣6−second toss∣=x)\mathrm{P}(X=x) = \mathrm{P}(\text{first toss is } x) + \mathrm{P}(\text{first toss is } 6 \text{ and } |6 - \text{second toss}| = x)
P(X=x)=16+(16×16)=736\mathrm{P}(X=x) = \frac{1}{6} + \left(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6}\right) = \frac{7}{36}

2. Calculate the exact expected value $\mathrm{E}(X)$.

E(X)=∑xP(X=x)\mathrm{E}(X) = \sum x \mathrm{P}(X=x)
E(X)=0(136)+1(736)+2(736)+3(736)+4(736)+5(736)\mathrm{E}(X) = 0\left(\frac{1}{36}\right) + 1\left(\frac{7}{36}\right) + 2\left(\frac{7}{36}\right) + 3\left(\frac{7}{36}\right) + 4\left(\frac{7}{36}\right) + 5\left(\frac{7}{36}\right)
E(X)=736(1+2+3+4+5)\mathrm{E}(X) = \frac{7}{36}(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5)
E(X)=736(15)=10536=3512\mathrm{E}(X) = \frac{7}{36}(15) = \frac{105}{36} = \frac{35}{12}

答案

3512\frac{35}{12}

11(iii)

1. Identify the binomial distribution and state the required probability expression.

From part (i), the probability of obtaining a score of 5 in a single game is P(X=5)=16+(16×16)=736\mathrm{P}(X = 5) = \frac{1}{6} + \left(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6}\right) = \frac{7}{36}.
Let YY be the number of times Mr Lim obtains a score of 5 out of 4 games.
Y∼B(4,736)Y \sim \mathrm{B}\left(4, \frac{7}{36}\right)
We need to find the probability of getting a score of 5 no more than 2 times, which is P(Y≤2)\mathrm{P}(Y \le 2). This can be calculated as 1−P(Y=3)−P(Y=4)1 - \mathrm{P}(Y = 3) - \mathrm{P}(Y = 4).

2. Calculate the probability.

P(Y≤2)=1−(43)(736)3(2936)−(44)(736)4=1−4(34346656)(2936)−24011679616=1−397881679616−24011679616=16374271679616≈0.975 (to 3 s.f.)\begin{aligned} \mathrm{P}(Y \le 2) &= 1 - \binom{4}{3}\left(\frac{7}{36}\right)^3\left(\frac{29}{36}\right) - \binom{4}{4}\left(\frac{7}{36}\right)^4 \\ &= 1 - 4\left(\frac{343}{46656}\right)\left(\frac{29}{36}\right) - \frac{2401}{1679616} \\ &= 1 - \frac{39788}{1679616} - \frac{2401}{1679616} \\ &= \frac{1637427}{1679616} \\ &\approx 0.975 \text{ (to 3 s.f.)} \end{aligned}

答案

0.9750.975

11(iv)

1. Identify the possible score combinations that give a total score of less than 2

Since the possible scores in each game are non-negative integers (X≥0X \ge 0), the total score TT in 4 games is less than 2 if and only if T=0T = 0 or T=1T = 1.

  • T=0T = 0: All 4 games result in a score of 0.
  • T=1T = 1: Exactly 1 game results in a score of 1, and the other 3 games result in a score of 0 (which can occur in (41)=4\binom{4}{1} = 4 ways).

2. Calculate the probabilities for each case and find the total probability

From part (i), P(X=0)=136\mathrm{P}(X = 0) = \frac{1}{36} and P(X=1)=736\mathrm{P}(X = 1) = \frac{7}{36}.

P(T<2)=P(T=0)+P(T=1)\mathrm{P}(T < 2) = \mathrm{P}(T = 0) + \mathrm{P}(T = 1)
P(T<2)=(136)4+4×(136)3(736)\mathrm{P}(T < 2) = \left(\frac{1}{36}\right)^4 + 4 \times \left(\frac{1}{36}\right)^3 \left(\frac{7}{36}\right)
P(T<2)=11679616+281679616\mathrm{P}(T < 2) = \frac{1}{1679616} + \frac{28}{1679616}
P(T<2)=291679616\mathrm{P}(T < 2) = \frac{29}{1679616}

答案

291679616\dfrac{29}{1679616}

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