已知 f(x)=etan⁡−1x\text{f}(x) = \text{e}^{\tan^{-1} x},其中 tan⁡−1x\tan^{-1} x 表示主值。

  1. (i)

    证明 (1+x2)f′(x)=f(x)(1 + x^2)\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}(x)。

  2. (ii)

    通过对上述结果进行进一步求导,求 f(x)\text{f}(x) 的麦克劳林级数,直至包含 x3x^3 的项。

  3. (iii)

    利用第 (ii) 部分中的级数求 ∫00.5f(x) dx\int_0^{0.5} \text{f}(x) \text{ d}x 的近似值,保留 4 位有效数字。

  4. (iv)

    评述将 x=1x = 1 代入第 (ii) 部分中的级数以估算 eπ4\text{e}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} 的值的适用性。

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完整解法

3(i)

1. Differentiate $\text{f}(x)$ using the chain rule and the standard derivative of the inverse tangent function.

f(x)=etan⁡−1x\text{f}(x) = \text{e}^{\tan^{-1} x}

Using the chain rule:
f′(x)=etan⁡−1x⋅ddx(tan⁡−1x)\text{f}'(x) = \text{e}^{\tan^{-1} x} \cdot \frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}x}(\tan^{-1} x)

f′(x)=etan⁡−1x⋅11+x2\text{f}'(x) = \text{e}^{\tan^{-1} x} \cdot \frac{1}{1 + x^2}

2. Substitute $\text{f}(x)$ back into the derivative and rearrange to show the required result.

Since f(x)=etan⁡−1x\text{f}(x) = \text{e}^{\tan^{-1} x}, substitute this into the equation for f′(x)\text{f}'(x):
f′(x)=f(x)⋅11+x2\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}(x) \cdot \frac{1}{1 + x^2}

Multiply both sides by (1+x2)(1 + x^2):
(1+x2)f′(x)=f(x)(1 + x^2)\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}(x)

答案

(1+x2)f′(x)=f(x)(1 + x^2)\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}(x) (Shown)

3(ii)

1. Differentiate the given identity $(1 + x^2)\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}(x)$ with respect to $x$ to find an expression involving $\text{f}''(x)$.

ddx[(1+x2)f′(x)]=ddx[f(x)]\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}x} [(1 + x^2)\text{f}'(x)] = \frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}x} [\text{f}(x)]
(1+x2)f′′(x)+2xf′(x)=f′(x)(1 + x^2)\text{f}''(x) + 2x\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}'(x)

2. Differentiate the equation again with respect to $x$ to obtain an expression involving $\text{f}'''(x)$.

Applying the product rule again to both terms on the LHS:
[(1+x2)f′′′(x)+2xf′′(x)]+[2xf′′(x)+2f′(x)]=f′′(x)[(1 + x^2)\text{f}'''(x) + 2x\text{f}''(x)] + [2x\text{f}''(x) + 2\text{f}'(x)] = \text{f}''(x)
(1+x2)f′′′(x)+4xf′′(x)+2f′(x)=f′′(x)(1 + x^2)\text{f}'''(x) + 4x\text{f}''(x) + 2\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}''(x)

3. Evaluate the function and its derivatives at $x = 0$.

When x=0x = 0:
f(0)=etan⁡−1(0)=e0=1\text{f}(0) = \text{e}^{\tan^{-1}(0)} = \text{e}^0 = 1
Substitute x=0x = 0 into (1+x2)f′(x)=f(x)(1 + x^2)\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}(x):
(1+0)f′(0)=1  ⟹  f′(0)=1(1 + 0)\text{f}'(0) = 1 \implies \text{f}'(0) = 1
Substitute x=0x = 0 into (1+x2)f′′(x)+2xf′(x)=f′(x)(1 + x^2)\text{f}''(x) + 2x\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}'(x):
(1+0)f′′(0)+0=1  ⟹  f′′(0)=1(1 + 0)\text{f}''(0) + 0 = 1 \implies \text{f}''(0) = 1
Substitute x=0x = 0 into (1+x2)f′′′(x)+4xf′′(x)+2f′(x)=f′′(x)(1 + x^2)\text{f}'''(x) + 4x\text{f}''(x) + 2\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}''(x):
(1+0)f′′′(0)+0+2(1)=1  ⟹  f′′′(0)+2=1  ⟹  f′′′(0)=−1(1 + 0)\text{f}'''(0) + 0 + 2(1) = 1 \implies \text{f}'''(0) + 2 = 1 \implies \text{f}'''(0) = -1

4. Substitute the derivative values into the standard Maclaurin series expansion formula.

f(x)=f(0)+xf′(0)+x22!f′′(0)+x33!f′′′(0)+…\text{f}(x) = \text{f}(0) + x\text{f}'(0) + \frac{x^2}{2!}\text{f}''(0) + \frac{x^3}{3!}\text{f}'''(0) + \ldots
f(x)=1+x(1)+x22(1)+x36(−1)+…\text{f}(x) = 1 + x(1) + \frac{x^2}{2}(1) + \frac{x^3}{6}(-1) + \ldots
f(x)=1+x+12x2−16x3+…\text{f}(x) = 1 + x + \frac{1}{2}x^2 - \frac{1}{6}x^3 + \ldots

答案

1+x+12x2−16x31 + x + \frac{1}{2}x^2 - \frac{1}{6}x^3

3(iii)

1. Find the Maclaurin series for $\text{f}(x)$ up to the $x^3$ term (from part ii).

From part (i), (1+x2)f′(x)=f(x)(1+x^2)\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}(x). Evaluating at x=0x=0:
f(0)=e0=1  ⟹  f′(0)=1\text{f}(0) = \text{e}^0 = 1 \implies \text{f}'(0) = 1

Differentiating implicitly:
(1+x2)f′′(x)+2xf′(x)=f′(x)  ⟹  (1+x2)f′′(x)+(2x−1)f′(x)=0(1+x^2)\text{f}''(x) + 2x\text{f}'(x) = \text{f}'(x) \implies (1+x^2)\text{f}''(x) + (2x-1)\text{f}'(x) = 0
At x=0x=0: 1⋅f′′(0)+(−1)(1)=0  ⟹  f′′(0)=11\cdot\text{f}''(0) + (-1)(1) = 0 \implies \text{f}''(0) = 1

Differentiating again:
(1+x2)f′′′(x)+2xf′′(x)+(2x−1)f′′(x)+2f′(x)=0(1+x^2)\text{f}'''(x) + 2x\text{f}''(x) + (2x-1)\text{f}''(x) + 2\text{f}'(x) = 0
(1+x2)f′′′(x)+(4x−1)f′′(x)+2f′(x)=0(1+x^2)\text{f}'''(x) + (4x-1)\text{f}''(x) + 2\text{f}'(x) = 0
At x=0x=0: 1⋅f′′′(0)−1(1)+2(1)=0  ⟹  f′′′(0)=−11\cdot\text{f}'''(0) - 1(1) + 2(1) = 0 \implies \text{f}'''(0) = -1

f(x)≈f(0)+xf′(0)+x22!f′′(0)+x33!f′′′(0)=1+x+12x2−16x3\text{f}(x) \approx \text{f}(0) + x\text{f}'(0) + \frac{x^2}{2!}\text{f}''(0) + \frac{x^3}{3!}\text{f}'''(0) = 1 + x + \frac{1}{2}x^2 - \frac{1}{6}x^3

2. Integrate the polynomial approximation over the interval $[0, 0.5]$.

∫00.5f(x) dx≈∫00.5(1+x+x22−x36) dx\int_0^{0.5} \text{f}(x) \text{ d}x \approx \int_0^{0.5} \left(1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} - \frac{x^3}{6}\right) \text{ d}x

=[x+x22+x36−x424]00.5= \left[ x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{6} - \frac{x^4}{24} \right]_0^{0.5}

3. Evaluate the definite integral and round to 4 significant figures.

=0.5+(0.5)22+(0.5)36−(0.5)424= 0.5 + \frac{(0.5)^2}{2} + \frac{(0.5)^3}{6} - \frac{(0.5)^4}{24}

=12+18+148−1384= \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{48} - \frac{1}{384}

=247384≈0.643229...= \frac{247}{384} \approx 0.643229...

To 4 significant figures, the value is 0.64320.6432.

答案

0.64320.6432

3(iv)

1. State the reason for unsuitability based on the nature of Maclaurin series approximations.

A truncated Maclaurin series gives a polynomial approximation that is most accurate near x=0x = 0.
Since x=1x = 1 is not small (or not close to 00), substituting x=1x = 1 into the series up to x3x^3 will not give an accurate estimate for eπ4\text{e}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}.
Therefore, the substitution is not suitable.

答案

It is not suitable because x=1x=1 is not small. The truncated Maclaurin series only provides an accurate approximation for values of xx close to 00.

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