1. Use integration by parts to integrate the function.
Let u=tan−1x2 and dxdv=x.
Then dxdu=1+(x2)22x=1+x42x and v=21x2.
Using the integration by parts formula ∫udxdv dx=uv−∫vdxdu dx,
∫xtan−1x2 dx=21x2tan−1x2−∫21x2(1+x42x) dx
=21x2tan−1x2−∫1+x4x3 dx
2. Integrate the remaining algebraic fraction.
Notice that the numerator is a scalar multiple of the derivative of the denominator. Let f(x)=1+x4, then f′(x)=4x3.
∫1+x4x3 dx=41∫1+x44x3 dx=41ln(1+x4)
So, the indefinite integral is:
∫xtan−1x2 dx=21x2tan−1x2−41ln(1+x4)+C
3. Simplify the definite integral by exploiting the symmetry of the integrand.
Let g(x)=∣xtan−1x2∣.
Testing for symmetry: g(−x)=∣−xtan−1(−x)2∣=∣−x∣tan−1x2=∣x∣tan−1x2=g(x).
Since g(x) is an even function,
∫−11∣xtan−1x2∣ dx=2∫01∣xtan−1x2∣ dx
For x∈[0,1], x≥0 and tan−1x2≥0, so ∣xtan−1x2∣=xtan−1x2.
Thus, the integral simplifies to:
2∫01xtan−1x2 dx
4. Evaluate the simplified definite integral to find the exact value.
Using the result from the indefinite integral:
2∫01xtan−1x2 dx=2[21x2tan−1x2−41ln(1+x4)]01
Substitute the limits:
=2((21(12)tan−1(12)−41ln(1+14))−(0−41ln(1)))
=2(21(4π)−41ln2−0)
=2(8π−41ln2)
=4π−21ln2
Answer∫xtan−1x2 dx=21x2tan−1x2−41ln(1+x4)+C\nExact value: 4π−21ln2